Sandro Magister is very helpful in giving us the complete interview with Cardinal Walter Kasper on the “Riddle of Brother Roger”. Does Magister have his tongue firmly planted in his cheek when he says that through this interview Cardinal Kasper “solved” the riddle of Brother Roger’s confessional belonging? For me, it raises so many questions. Such as “If Brother Roger could be Catholic without breaking communion with his protestant roots, why did I have to?” or “Does such an ecumencal solution only apply to people who have access to a personal friendship with the pope?” or “Can we expect a cause for Brother Roger’s sainthood to be opened in two years time (ie. five years after his death)?”
Don’t get me wrong. I truly believe Br Roger was a saint, and I also believe that he was, to all extents and purposes, a Catholic, even if not “formally” so. But no matter how sincere he was in his attachment to the Catholic faith, how come the canons did not apply to him, but apply to the rest of us?
And a couple more questions: If Br Roger daily received communion at the Catholic liturgy in Taize, did he still receive communion from Protestant altars? (although, I understand that protestant eucharists are not celebrated at Taize). And did he continue, as an ordained Reformed minister, to celebrate the Eucharist himself?
I only ask.